Skip Navigation

When is it considered immoral if someone is saying something that they know is pejorative and they are not intending it as disparaging towards the original group?

I've heard this sentiment that it is immoral a lot on the internet, and I would like to hear more about it. It feels intuitively correct to me, but I would like to hear the reasoning behind it.

  • Calling someone 'queer' to mean they are weird, but not in a way intended as disparaging to those who are LGBT(Q+).

Discussion questions:

  • How does this factor into meanings of words fading away?
    • Does it still pack the same "punch" after it no longer is commonly used as a pejorative?
      • If not, at what point is it generally considered okay to use?
  • How does this differ/compare with reclamation?

  • Bad actors can piggyback off of the use as a negative to help condemn the original target group.
  • It may directly harm the group, by them (also knowing the original context) coming into contact with it and causing/enabling self-hate.
    • This may apply irregardless of if they know it was intended as non-disparaging to them or not, but this is just speculation based off of my similar experiences.

‎‏‏‎

I apologize for any personal bias within this comment, I tried my best to limit it but I am fallible.

Though I would like a discussion in the comments, please refrain from insults and inflammatory statements towards your fellow lemmings, despite the hot topic. /srs

Comments

12

Comments

12